Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 11:56
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
How do you write a letter to your uncle who sent you money for your birthday outfit?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.